Remember it is the cost price of your investments that is used to calculate whether you are above the $50,000 or not. The change in value of the investment is ignored.
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Assuming no more purchases, (or sales) does it get re-calculated at any some point 777 from your understanding?
That is, if I bought 1 or more "qualifying" shares to the value of $49,500 and by 31 March next year were worth $60K without any further purchases, maybe only dividends received, under present law nothing to declare except the dividends
As I understand it you are correct. However if you were to reinvest the dividends (i.e. take shares instead of cash) then they would add to your $49,500.