I borrowed 200k against my house and bought 92500 at $2.16. I fixed the amount at 5.89% for 3 years and the bank was also nice enough to give me $1500 cash for taking the loan out.
Because the dividend is fully imputed, does that mean I can claim any interest back on the loan? I'll check with an accountant.
just out of interest did you compare the cash inflows (dividends) against cash outflows (interest) ? was it positive or negative?
Originally Posted by Bobdn
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