sharetrader
Results 1 to 10 of 4649

Thread: Harmoney

Hybrid View

  1. #1
    Member
    Join Date
    Aug 2017
    Posts
    212

    Default

    How can F5 possibly be profitable?

    According to the forecasts, annual default rate of 9.49 annually, applied over 5 years gives a loan default rate of 47.5%. The hazard curve then suggests So 24% default against 30% interest in the 1st year.

    2nd year and onwards, a severely eroded premium base (even without early repays) , so fall short of recouping default losses through remaining cashflows.

  2. #2
    Member
    Join Date
    May 2016
    Posts
    236

    Default

    Quote Originally Posted by leesal View Post
    How can F5 possibly be profitable?

    According to the forecasts, annual default rate of 9.49 annually, applied over 5 years gives a loan default rate of 47.5%. The hazard curve then suggests So 24% default against 30% interest in the 1st year.

    2nd year and onwards, a severely eroded premium base (even without early repays) , so fall short of recouping default losses through remaining cashflows.
    Simplified example in round numbers ignoring repayments and arrears. Say you invested $100k (fully diversified). After one year you would expect 10 to have gone bad and 90 to have paid interest at 30% ($27k) so you would be up $17k before fees and tax and arrears. The next year the same %'s apply but to a lower base so the return would be the same. Personally I think there is better value in the other grades. It's not just the expected return but also the variability that matters.

  3. #3
    Member
    Join Date
    May 2014
    Posts
    204

    Default

    Quote Originally Posted by leesal View Post
    How can F5 possibly be profitable?

    According to the forecasts, annual default rate of 9.49 annually, applied over 5 years gives a loan default rate of 47.5%. The hazard curve then suggests So 24% default against 30% interest in the 1st year.

    2nd year and onwards, a severely eroded premium base (even without early repays) , so fall short of recouping default losses through remaining cashflows.

    Assuming it takes 6 months for the default to register, ie it goes 6 months without it paying you anything, then its defaulted.
    Then for year 1, on average...
    90.5% of the time you collect a full years interest. 9.5% of the time, you collect sum or no interest (average would be 3 months interest i think).

    Year 2, you have got a little bit of capital back, maybe the loans 90% of its original value. so again, 90.5% of the time, you get a full years interest (obv less than year 1), 9.5% of the time it defaults, and you get not as much interest back

    Extrapolate this out over a sample of F's, and its profitable.

    Model a 30% interest rate on a $100 loan, you only need to last 31 months (out of 60) to get all your $100 back (in nominal terms).

Tags for this Thread

Bookmarks

Posting Permissions

  • You may not post new threads
  • You may not post replies
  • You may not post attachments
  • You may not edit your posts
  •